glgene
613 posts
msg #99072
- Ignore glgene |
2/13/2011 2:02:28 PM
Need some input on this one. How can there be more SP 500 stocks > MA(200) vs. MA(50)?
Then, run...
By running this script, end-of-day, 2-11-2011, I get the 1st col. counts (vs. 2 col. count with MA(200) search:
......................................... MA(50) ............MA(200)
.......................................... Count ............. Count
Today.......2/11/11..............407 .................. 456
1 wk. ago, 2/4/11 ..............387 .................. 450
1 mo. ago, 1/11/11 ......... 389 .................. 438
3 mos. ago, 1/4/10........... 441 ................. 398
How can there be more stocks > MA(200) vs. > MA (50) on the first three results comparisons? The 3-mos. lookback seems to make sense, that is, more stocks > MA(50) vs. >MA(200).
Am I missing something, or what? Constructive replies are welcomed.
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durgin
60 posts
msg #99076
- Ignore durgin |
2/13/2011 3:11:41 PM
One would expect to have more stocks that are above the 200day moving average than the 50day moving average in a rising stock market. For part of last year, the S&P 500 (SPY) had the 200day moving average above the 50day MA and then you would have expected fewer 200day MA than 50day MA stocks. When the 50day MA crossed above the 200day MA it was an example of the "golden cross".
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duke56468
683 posts
msg #99078
- Ignore duke56468 |
2/13/2011 3:41:52 PM
not sure I understand the question, but cant stocks fall below the 50 and still be above the 200, this often happens when the market starts to turn
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glgene
613 posts
msg #99082
- Ignore glgene |
2/13/2011 8:07:34 PM
I eat my words. Don't know what I was thinking with my original post. I added to my script, which proved my initial belief to be incorrect. Duh!
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