optionmasters
17 posts
msg #35105
- Ignore optionmasters |
2/10/2005 11:56:05 PM
How do I code a equation of =(Upper bollinger(20) - lower bollinger(20))/SMA(20)
|
kgriffen
49 posts
msg #35107
- Ignore kgriffen |
2/11/2005 12:54:59 AM
try
|
jclaffee
81 posts
msg #35108
- Ignore jclaffee |
2/11/2005 2:49:19 AM
If not that, optionmasters, how 'bout this --
Lines 1,2 and 5 have nothing to do with what you asked but just limit the universe of stocks being searched and, in the case of Line 5, show that something has been produced. It's essential to use the nomenclature that SF uses (whether that's what any other part of the world uses or not) and I've found that, in my "set" statements, I have to be careful not to use a name that SF might be useing for something.
HTH
Jim
|
murknd
62 posts
msg #35117
- Ignore murknd |
2/12/2005 1:25:22 PM
the first part of your equation is simply the bollinger width(20) and this is a standard SF indicator - the SMA(20)is the mid point of the bollinger width, so this equation I think will always yield 50% - I'm not sure what your trying to do, but look at the bollinger %B(20) which is a measure of where the close is within the bollinger bands
|
jclaffee
81 posts
msg #35119
- Ignore jclaffee |
2/12/2005 3:18:46 PM
You're right on it, murknd. . .what SF calls "Bollinger Width" is the bandwidth divided by the moving average. . .so, really, optionmasters whole equation yields just the Bollinger Width.
Better eyes than mine!
Jim
|
optionmasters
17 posts
msg #35149
- Ignore optionmasters |
2/14/2005 11:53:05 PM
thanks for the help... was a good try
|